Sports Stack Exchange is a question and answer site for participants in team and individual sport activities. Join them; it only takes a minute:

Sign up
Here's how it works:
  1. Anybody can ask a question
  2. Anybody can answer
  3. The best answers are voted up and rise to the top

A batsman who is at 99 not out and at non-striker needs 1 run to win off the last ball. How is it possible that they win the game and also that the batsman reaches his century?

share|improve this question

I think the only way to do it is by way of penalty runs. Most straightforwardly, the batsmen could try to steal a run during the bowler's run up. As soon as they cross, the umpires would call dead ball and award 5 penalty runs to the fielding side. The batsmen return to their original ends. Now the batting side needs 6 to win off one ball. The bowler could then bowl a no ball or a wide allowing the batsmen to cross, which would score 2 runs. Now the guy on 99 is on strike with one legal ball to go and needing 4 to win.

share|improve this answer
    
may be this thing could be possible , but are you sure the penalty is awarded if the batsman tries to run during bowler's run up.Has there been such a case before.Or is that a written rule. – freebird May 8 '12 at 5:30
    
Yes, it's in the laws. It never happens in practice because it's not allowed. There are also other ways the fielding side could get 5 penalty runs, but they are more difficult to provoke on the spot (e.g., repeatedly damaging the pitch). Also, intentionally provoking a penalty would likely cause the players to be subject to sanctions by the league or other governing body, so don't try this at home. ;-) – Peter Eisentraut May 8 '12 at 6:57
    
thanks a lot for this.Great suggestion thanks. – freebird May 8 '12 at 7:02

The batsman attempt another run before the final ball is bowled (once bowler has commenced his run up), cross, and the other batsman gets run out.

The batsman who is on 99 is now on strike and hits a single off the one remaining delivery.

share|improve this answer
    
I think the question assumes that the ball is dead, in which case they cannot attempt a run. – Peter Eisentraut Oct 2 '12 at 17:35
    
Actually you might be right and the answer may be a combination of our answers. If a run out, from a dead ball can result in the batsmen changing ends, it could be set up for the guy on 99 to score a run from the last delivery, without penalties... ??? – Stuart Helwig Oct 3 '12 at 5:58
    
When the ball is dead, they cannot run or attempt to run or be run out. – Peter Eisentraut Oct 3 '12 at 15:33
    
You can't be run out once the ball is dead, but you could be run out in the act of the ball becoming dead. What I should've said was, "if a run out occurs and the result is a dead ball". – Stuart Helwig Oct 4 '12 at 0:02
    
So it's back to my original answer. Batsman attempt to run as the bowler runs in (ball is live once he commences his run up). Batsman would need to cross, and bowler would affect the run out at the bowlers end. The guy on 99 is then on strike and away he goes... ;-) – Stuart Helwig Oct 4 '12 at 0:04

When the batsman going for a run , one of the either is obstructed by a fielder in which a run is not completed...in this case the umpire will call dead ball and the non striker who is on 99 will take strike...( as the batsman has crossed each other)

share|improve this answer
    
Which part of the Laws of Cricket would allow an umpire to make this call? I see nothing in Law 23 which supports this answer. – Philip Kendall May 27 at 12:36

There are two other cases that haven't been raised here - either a no ball or wide being bowled. In both cases the ball is rebowled and the batsman are able to run a single (or three for that matter).

share|improve this answer
    
This is incorrect; the game is over as soon as the no ball or wide is bowled, so there would be no opportunity for the non striker to score a run. – Philip Kendall May 27 at 16:26

The most common way would be for the bowler to bowl a no-ball or wide, and the batsmen cross , leaving the guy on 99* on strike. He then needs to score at least one run on the next ball that resulted from the previous illegal delivery.

share|improve this answer
1  
The run scored from the no-ball or wide would end the game. – M.M Dec 14 '14 at 4:31

Your Answer

 
discard

By posting your answer, you agree to the privacy policy and terms of service.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.