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technically you wouldn't have to get 27 batters out in a row; a batter could reach base on an error (other than the pitcher's) and the pitcher could still get a perfect game – Thomas ShieldsMay 8 '12 at 15:03
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@ThomasShields Thanks for your comment. It is good to hear from you once again. I believe this may be true in regards to a pitcher throwing a no-hitter. However, it is my understanding that in order to throw an official perfect game the pitcher would have to pitch from inning 1 through at least inning 9 (facing a minimum of 27 batters) without allowing a batter to reach base. Baseball has always provided many unique situations, without doubt I may be missing or misunderstanding something. :–) – E1SuaveMay 8 '12 at 15:26
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Ah, you may be right :) I'll have to check the official rules after I get out of calc class – Thomas ShieldsMay 8 '12 at 15:59
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The final batter wouldn't reach the base. If he reached the base, he would be followed by someone else, so he wouldn't be the final batter. – corsiKaMay 8 '12 at 16:57
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@corsiKa Not necessarily. I can think of two ways this could happen. First, the batter could get a hit but then get thrown out trying to reach the next base, ending the game with a win for the defense. Second, the batter could hit a walk-off homerun, ending the game with a win for the offense. It would be great if the OP could clarify their question with a proper definition of a near perfect game. – Tyson WilliamsAug 4 '12 at 16:10