Timeline for MLB near perfect game
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
18 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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| Aug 1, 2016 at 4:20 | history | tweeted | twitter.com/StackSport/status/759967122445504512 | ||
| Sep 27, 2012 at 13:25 | history | edited | user527 |
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| Sep 20, 2012 at 14:40 | comment | added | user527 | @corsiKa As long as the runner reaches first base safely, it would no longer constitute a perfect game (would still be a no-hitter in an error occured) regardless of whether he gets tagged out in between first and second. | |
| Sep 12, 2012 at 13:43 | history | reopened | user527 | ||
| Sep 12, 2012 at 13:26 | history | closed | user527 | not constructive | |
| Aug 4, 2012 at 16:34 | comment | added | corsiKa | @Tyson Good point on the second option (home-run). I believe it would still be considered a perfect game if the runner was tagged out between first and second, though. Getting to first, rounding toward second, and getting out I do not believe counts as reaching base. I may be mistaken in this. | |
| Aug 4, 2012 at 16:10 | comment | added | Tyson Williams | @corsiKa Not necessarily. I can think of two ways this could happen. First, the batter could get a hit but then get thrown out trying to reach the next base, ending the game with a win for the defense. Second, the batter could hit a walk-off homerun, ending the game with a win for the offense. It would be great if the OP could clarify their question with a proper definition of a near perfect game. | |
| May 8, 2012 at 19:41 | comment | added | E1Suave | @waxeagle Ironically when reviewing questions previously posted on this site, I read a number of your questions including your highest rated question (How is offside determined in Soccer?) Based on this reading I felt this question was appropriate. | |
| May 8, 2012 at 19:03 | comment | added | wax eagle | This is far to easily found. Not a good trivia question. | |
| May 8, 2012 at 18:40 | vote | accept | E1Suave | ||
| May 8, 2012 at 16:57 | comment | added | corsiKa | The final batter wouldn't reach the base. If he reached the base, he would be followed by someone else, so he wouldn't be the final batter. | |
| May 8, 2012 at 15:59 | comment | added | Thomas Shields | Ah, you may be right :) I'll have to check the official rules after I get out of calc class | |
| May 8, 2012 at 15:26 | comment | added | E1Suave | @ThomasShields Thanks for your comment. It is good to hear from you once again. I believe this may be true in regards to a pitcher throwing a no-hitter. However, it is my understanding that in order to throw an official perfect game the pitcher would have to pitch from inning 1 through at least inning 9 (facing a minimum of 27 batters) without allowing a batter to reach base. Baseball has always provided many unique situations, without doubt I may be missing or misunderstanding something. :–) | |
| May 8, 2012 at 15:03 | comment | added | Thomas Shields | technically you wouldn't have to get 27 batters out in a row; a batter could reach base on an error (other than the pitcher's) and the pitcher could still get a perfect game | |
| May 8, 2012 at 2:35 | vote | accept | E1Suave | ||
| May 8, 2012 at 18:40 | |||||
| May 8, 2012 at 2:28 | answer | added | Jacob G | timeline score: 9 | |
| May 7, 2012 at 22:53 | history | edited | E1Suave |
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| May 7, 2012 at 22:35 | history | asked | E1Suave | CC BY-SA 3.0 |