3

In La Liga game between Leganes and Real Madrid on 5th April 2017, Leganes defender Martín Mantovani scored an own goal with hand †. Was it a valid goal?

This goal apparently counted as Alvaro Morata's goal, which seems strange to me as he didn't even touch the ball. But if Morata wasn't involved at all, would it be still a valid goal if defender scores an own goal with his hands?

6

There are two possible circumstances here:

  1. The referee deems the contact between the hand and the ball to hand to be accidental. In this case, play continues as normal and the goal stands.
  2. The referee deems the contact between the hand and the ball to be deliberate. This would normally be a direct free kick offence, but the referee should clearly play advantage here as "the non-offending team will benefit from the advantage" (Law 5.3, The Referee, Powers and Duties).

In both cases, the goal stands. I agree the awarding of the goal to Morata seems a little strange, but that's not something which actually matters in terms of the result of the match (and can always be corrected afterwards).

  • I'd like to point out a minor factor that may or may not invalidate your answer for case No 1. (I don't know the actual answer and I would like to). I think a goal scored with an involuntary handball against the opponent still wouldn't count, so I'm a little skeptical about it counting against ones own goal. – user493048 Jun 28 '18 at 12:37

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service, privacy policy and cookie policy

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.