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A no ball is bowled. The striker hits the ball, but in doing so accidentally puts down their wicket. Will the runs be considered or not? And will be the striker be out hit wicket or not?

closed as off-topic by gdrt, alamoot, rrirower, Nij, jamauss Jun 7 '17 at 17:52

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    I'm not a huge follower of cricket, so I may have minced some of the terminology in re-wording this question. However, as it stands, it seems like the close vote / downvotes are no longer unnecessary, since it is entirely clear what is being asked. – studro Jun 7 '17 at 0:21
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    I'm voting to close this question as off-topic because the laws are trivially clear on a no ball, hit wicket. – Nij Jun 7 '17 at 5:14
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    @Nij - I could say the same about 90% of the association football (soccer) questions on here. I had no idea this was the case in cricket - what is obvious to you may not well be obvious to others. – studro Jun 8 '17 at 2:09
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    There were three upvoted answers saying "keep them open" and one downvoted answer saying "close". That's as close as we ever get to a consensus on meta here. – Philip Kendall Jun 8 '17 at 7:08
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A batsman cannot be out hit wicket from a no ball. See Law 24.16:

When No ball has been called, neither batsman shall be out under any of the Laws except 33 (Handled the ball), 34 (Hit the ball twice), 37 (Obstructing the field) or 38 (Run out).

As such, if a batsman does break his own wicket after a no ball, nothing in particular happens: the ball is not dead because no wicket has fallen, so any runs scored count as normal.

(This assumes that breaking the wicket was accidental; if it was deliberate, the fielding side may have a case for the batsman being out obstructing the field).

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