In the final match of the World Cup 2018 against Croatia, France won having 39% of possession of the ball (34% or even 32% according to other sources). In contrast, possession of the winner of other world cups have been:
- 2014: 61% for Germany
- 2010: 55% for Spain
- 2006: 51% for Italy
- 2002: 44% for Brazil
That's pretty much all I could find online. Is 2018 the world cup where the winner had the least possession of the ball in history?