1

Can a fielding side start bowling in an innings with the same/old ball after enforcing the follow on, having bowled out the opponents with in 30 overs previously? FOr example, Pakistan today bowled New Zealand out today in 35.5 overs and enforced follow on, now could they start with an old ball in second innings?

2

Generally speaking,

  • in theory, the bowling team could ask it.

  • in reality, the batting tea wouldn't let them.

  • the bowling team wouldn't want it anyway, unless they are only using spin bowlers, which is highly unlikely.

Law 4 The ball provides that

4.3 New ball

Unless an agreement to the contrary has been made before the match, either captain may demand a new ball at the start of each innings.

In particular, for international Test cricket, ICC Playing Conditions provide that

4.3 New ball

A new ball shall be used at the start of each innings.

Pakistan would not have the choice. A new ball must be used, even if the first innings had been 0/10 in 0.1 overs.

  • 0/10 in 0.1 overs. How? – hims056 Dec 26 '18 at 9:44
  • It's an extreme example - the laws don't quite currently allow for it, but that could change in the future. 1/10 in 0.0 could happen, of course. @hims056 – Nij Dec 26 '18 at 10:14
  • 1/10 in 0.0 again how? (Except timeout of course) – hims056 Dec 26 '18 at 10:43
  • No ball and any of the three options for out there, then timed out the rest, is one way. – Nij Dec 26 '18 at 11:42
-1

No as per law in cricket it is mandatory that whenever new innings is started whether after followon or in normal circumstances , new ball will be used to start a inning

  • It is not mandatory in law, which allows continuation with the previous ball if agreed. The playing conditions may vary this in almost any way conceivable. – Nij Dec 3 '18 at 2:34

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