Suppose, A batsman is on strike with 98 runs. The scores are level so the batting team requires only 1 run to win. Now suppose in the next ball, the bowler bowls a No ball and the batsman hits FOUR or SIX. Will the batsman reach to his century or not?
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5 Answers
I found it! When the batting team requires only 1 run to win and batsman scores run(s) on No ball it does not count towards batsman's runs. So in the given case the batsman will remain on 98 and batting side will win the match.
Real Case:
In the 3rd match between Sri Lanka and India in Sri Lanka Triangular Series, 2010 (between Sri Lanka, India and New Zealand), India required 1 run to win and Virender Sehwag was on strike with 99 runs. Suraj Randiv was the bowler. He bowled a No ball and Sehwag smashed a Six but still Sehwag remained on 99 runs because India won the match before he score runs. Have a look at commentary on Cricinfo (see from 35th over).
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4There you go, what a bizarre rule. I'll see if I can find the exact wording in the rules. It seems the no-ball was deliberate and this is a common occurance in sub-continental cricket. You'd never see that happen in Australia, for one because it would be considered bad sportsmanship and two because the bowler would cop a bat to the skull. Jan 22, 2013 at 9:06
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2Here is the rule on this, as far as I can tell although it doesn't make it very clear:6. Winning hit or extras (a) As soon as a result is reached as defined in 1, 2, 3, 4 or 5(a) above, the match is at an end. Nothing that happens thereafter, except as in Law 42.17(b) (Penalty runs), shall be regarded as part of it. Note also 9 below. (b) The side batting last will have scored enough runs to win only if its total of runs is sufficient without including any runs completed by the batsmen before the completion of a catch, or the obstruction of a catch, from which the striker could be dismissed. Jan 22, 2013 at 9:16
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2(c) If a boundary is scored before the batsmen have completed sufficient runs to win the match, the whole of the boundary allowance shall be credited to the side’s total and, in the case of a hit by the bat, to the striker’s score. Jan 22, 2013 at 9:16
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2So the rules are clear that all runs from any boundary count, even if they are excess, but I guess once a ball is a no-ball then part (a) applies and the game is over, regardless of what the batsmen does. It seems from the article @hims056 linked to that the players are as bemused by this as I am. Very odd rule. Jan 22, 2013 at 9:18
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No,it won't go to the batsman,it will be counted as extras.
UPDATE:
As per Wikipedia:
A no ball does not count as one of the six balls in an over, but it counts as a ball faced by the batsman. When a no ball is bowled, a number of runs are awarded to the batting team, the number varying depending on local playing conditions in force. In Test cricket and One Day International cricket the award is one run; in some domestic competitions, particularly one-day cricket competitions, the award is two runs. These runs are scored as extras and are added to the batting team's total, but are not added to any batsman's total. For scoring, no balls are considered to be the fault of the bowler (even if the infringement was committed by a fielder), and since the early 1980s, are recorded as a negative statistic in a bowler's record.
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Welcome to Sports SE! Thanks for your answer. Is this reflected within the rules of cricket?– user527Jan 21, 2013 at 17:53
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Hi, the excerpt you have quoted is referring to the extra runs of the NoBall itself (usually the 1 run), and not to the runs scored by the batsman. If you read a few lines below: "If the batsman hits the ball he may take runs as normal. These are scored as runs by the batsman, as normal..." Mar 24, 2013 at 9:28
yes it is possible because according to cricket law you can take run on no ball unless you got run out and your second point that the next ball, the bowler bowls a No ball and the batsman hits FOUR or SIX. Will the batsman reach to his century or not? .. the answer is that the batsman will reach his century either it is no ball.
When the batting team requires only 1 run and batsman require only two runs to complete the century and bowler bowls a no ball in last ball and batsman hits the four or six then it will not count the score towards the batsman but one run due to no ball will count towards the team.
No, a batsman never gets a run into his account in case of NO BALL, WIDE BALL, leg bye or there are many such situations where the runs are counted for the team but not for the batsman. A batsman gets a run only when he hit the shot for a run. So, no matters whether it is the last ball of a first ball of the match the rules remains the same for every ball.
Let's take an example.
This is similar to what happened to Virendra Sehwag in the match against Sri Lanka when Suraj Randiv deliberately bowled a huge front foot no ball when India needed 1 run to win and Sehwag needed 1 run to complete his century. Though Sehwag hit a six, that six was not counted as the ball became dead at the moment that no-ball happened as the team had already won the match there.
And similarly, if the batsman is stumped when only 1 run is needed to win in 1 ball and the bowler bowls a wide, the batting side will win as the team wins the moment the ball is bowled wide and the ball becomes dead and the wicket does not count. So you can even re-frame the question as "If a cricket team needs 1 run to win with only 1 ball left, and the team is 9 wickets down, and the bowler bowls a wide, but the batsman got stumped, who will win?"
Answer: The batting side
