In last night's France v Germany encounter, France toward the end of the match, had a goal disallowed for offside.
Pogba played the ball to Mbappe, who was doubtfully offside. However Benzema, who was to put the ball into the net, was at that point clearly, by a country mile, in an offside position. But was he - at that stage- "interfering with play"?
In view of the fact that he went on to score a goal without any further German player touching the ball, surely he must have been.
NB. I am not asking about the one which Mbappe "scored" with a brilliant curl - and was given offside. It is the later one involving Pogba, Mbappe and Benzema, which puzzles me.