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If during the build-up to a goal a player of the defending team commits what would be a red card offence, say a dangerous tackle, to which the referee plays advantage (maybe because in real-time they thought it was a yellow card) and the attacking team scores, is there an officiating framework, with VAR, to say that the player should still be sent off - or does the fact that the attacking team scored the goal deemed to be them converting the advantage?

A specific case study would be during the Tottenham vs Chelsea match in the 23/24 season, where Moises Caicedo of Chelsea had a goal ruled out for offside via a VAR check. However, during the build up to that "goal", Christian Romero of Tottenham was deemed to have made a red card offence for a dangerous tackle, leading to a penalty and a red card.

If the Caicedo goal had stood - ie it wasn't given offside - is there still remit for the VAR / referee to still send off Romero for the dangerous tackle?

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In the case you mention, the red card offence would have then been yellow. From the IFAB - International Football Association Board:

The referee can wait a few seconds to allow a possible advantage to develop, and if the non-offending team does not benefit and gains no advantage, the original free kick can be given. However, the non-offending team should not be given two chances, e.g. a player is fouled but recovers and has a shot at goal; if the player does not score, the referee cannot go back and give a free kick for the original offence.

If the referee plays advantage following an offence that would have resulted in a red or yellow card being shown, the card must be shown next time the game stops. However:

if the offence was denying an obvious goal-scoring opportunity, a yellow card is shown instead of a red card as playing advantage allowed the attack to continue if the offence was stopping a promising attack, no card is shown as playing advantage allowed the attack to continue.

Some more reading with examples and explanations: the advantage rule and advantage rule explained

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    I think the question here is "what if the offence was a sending off offence even without the DOGSO?" e.g. violent conduct. It seems incorrect to me that a player should be allowed to escape the full punishment for violence just because the opposition happened to score a goal.
    – Philip Kendall
    Nov 8, 2023 at 10:43
  • @PhilipKendall : it's very tricky, I agree, and it's the referee's interpretation. I included the raw law from the Board. That's why there are examples (the links).
    – OldPadawan
    Nov 8, 2023 at 11:03

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