We know that in the first innings the predicted score and in the second innings the predicted winning percentage will be calculated in the WASP.
But there is only one formula for calculating both score and percentage.
V(b,w) =r(b,w) +p(b,w) V(b+1,w+1) +(1-p(b,w)))V(b+1,w)
How is this one formula enough to get two results?
This question is not related to the previous one. I’m not asking about logical explanation here; I just want to know, what is the change that they do in the formula to get the percentage for the second innings?
Providing an example is a great thing for this type of question.