If a Bowler has bowled 100 balls in his career and has taken 0 wickets, then what is his bowling strike rate?

  • Found the good old duplicate question. – hims056 Feb 27 '14 at 5:22
  • @hims056, linked question is about general calculation of bowling strike rate. This is about specific scenario. I can't find answer for zero wickets in that post. – Azik Abdullah Feb 27 '14 at 5:46
  • @SportsFan - Why do we need to ask for specific scenario when we already have it's formula? If so new questions with different scenarios can be asked. Can't you calculate the strike rate of the given scenario from that answer? – hims056 Feb 27 '14 at 5:54
  • @hims056, as that answer states that bowling average = no. of runs/wickets. We might get a confusion that anything divided by zero would be infinity. Then what the bowling strike rate would be for a bowler who didn't take any wicket. This could be a separate question. – Azik Abdullah Feb 27 '14 at 6:06
  • 1
    @SportsFan - Okay. I am convinced but not with the given title. So updated it. Retracting my close vote now. Cheers :) – hims056 Feb 27 '14 at 6:45

Bowling strike rate means number of balls needed to bowl for a bowler to take a wicket. We can only find the bowling strike rate of that bowler after he takes a single wicket.

So, the bowling strike rate is undefined. It will be mentioned as - in his carrier profile.

For example, take a look at Hashim Amla's profile. His bowling strike rate and average for test matches is mentioned as -. He bowled more than 50 deliveries without taking a wicket.


Not applicable, or sometimes '-' in the column where the number would otherwise be.

This question will most likely head in the same direction...


In this case the strike-rate column for bowler would be mentioned as either "-" or "NA"

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service, privacy policy and cookie policy

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.