7

The situation:

Runners at third and first, ball is hit to the second basemen, 2nd basemen goes to tag the runner out. Runner stops, runner on third scores and then 2nd basement tags the runner, does not step on base.Does the run count?

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    Are we correct to assume that in this scenario there are two outs (as it would count if there are not in any event)? – Joe Sep 23 '14 at 3:14
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No the run does not count because the runner is forced to advance by the batter, constituting a "force out". A run cannot score on a force play (commonly called a force out) that results in a third out of an inning. A force out does not have to end in the touching of a base, it can end in a tag.

Rule 2.0 - Force Play

Check out the second example on this site

The above link is similar and the scoring is the same.

Also in Rule 4.09 you can see part (2):

4.09 HOW A TEAM SCORES.

(a) One run shall be scored each time a runner legally advances to and touches first, second, third and home base before three men are put out to end the inning. EXCEPTION: A run is not scored if the runner advances to home base during a play in which the third out is made (1) by the batter-runner before he touches first base; (2) by any runner being forced out; or (3) by a preceding runner who is declared out because he failed to touch one of the bases.

Also see this question regarding scoring runs


Edit

Along with the comments, if a force out does not end the inning then the run will count. A force out does not keep a run from scoring in any situation besides ending the inning. I assumed the scenario was with two outs, because this is a common question about baseball. With less than two outs (ie zero outs or one out), the run will count.

  • 1
    Would it be different if there weren't any outs yet before this scenario happens? – Ben Miller Sep 23 '14 at 3:12
  • @BenMiller if there are no outs and this happens, then the run counts and there is one out after the play is over. – diggers3 Sep 23 '14 at 14:49

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